I am saying that the only conceivable reason for God to do so would be to try to fool people into thinking species were related by common descent.
A different disabling mutation on any of the primates might have disabused us of the idea that it was the same disabling mutation in a common primate ancestor. Any disabling mutation would work just as well to making primates unable to synthesize their own vitamin C. Why that particular mutation in all primates?
Why the pattern of presence of absence as well as similarity and divergence of Endogenous retroviral sequences such that they would exactly comport to their being incorporated in a common ancestor and diverging at the neutral mutation rate from that point on?
Why would God make chimp and human DNA the most similar among all primates? Just to make you look like a fool when you claim that the reality that God created is a “logical impossibility”?
==I am not saying God could not have created all animals with a pattern of similarity and divergence such that they would look exactly like they were related by common descent.
That’s an evolutionary assumption. If you assume that God created all animals, then their genetic similarity, right down to DNA being a basic component of all life, points to a common designer. In other words, the evolutionists are not being fooled by God, they are fooling themselves because of their prior committment to materialist evolution.
==A different disabling mutation on any of the primates might have disabused us of the idea that it was the same disabling mutation in a common primate ancestor. Any disabling mutation would work just as well to making primates unable to synthesize their own vitamin C. Why that particular mutation in all primates?
You might want to take some time and read the following from the Journal of Creation:
Why the shared mutations in the Hominidae exon X GULO pseudogene are not evidence for common descent
http://creation.com/images/pdfs/tj/j21_3/j21_3_118-127.pdf
==Why the pattern of presence of absence as well as similarity and divergence of Endogenous retroviral sequences such that they would exactly comport to their being incorporated in a common ancestor and diverging at the neutral mutation rate from that point on?
What relevance does the neutral mutation rate even have anymore if 93%+ of the genome that was formerly considered evolutionary “junk” by the Evos is now proving to be functional (to include ERVs)?