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To: netmilsmom
80% would NOT contract it if they did not have sex except with a husband.

ASSUMING that the husband had never had sex except with his wife.

If the man had premarital sex, yes, he could transmit the virus to his wife even if both were faithful after marriage.

77 posted on 02/16/2009 9:20:47 AM PST by Amelia
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To: Amelia

Which is why I gave it 80% and not 100%.

Personally, I would recommend that my fiance be tested.


80 posted on 02/16/2009 9:22:23 AM PST by netmilsmom (Psalm 109:8 - Let his days be few; and let another take his office)
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