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To: count-your-change
"In every case I can find in the Bible bara’ means to bring something into existence that wasn’t there before."

Which is why I asked you that if God 'asah' man in Gen 1:26 why did he need to 'bara' him in Gen 1:27. If your position is true, how can God 'bara' man in v 27 if he already 'asah' him in v 26?

460 posted on 02/05/2009 4:05:31 PM PST by GourmetDan (Eccl 10:2 - The heart of the wise inclines to the right, but the heart of the fool to the left.)
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To: GourmetDan

Your point just hit me with the full force (I’m sure) you intended. Excellent, excellent observation!


463 posted on 02/05/2009 4:37:21 PM PST by GodGunsGuts
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To: GourmetDan
Vs. 26 is a statement of future action, “Let us make...”’ while Vs. 27 speaks of the execution of the action, “And so God created....”.

Since bara’ means create ‘asah would have to follow. Image and likeness are made, image being not the actual thing but a representation in some way and likeness, similitude.

Bara’ is not used of human acts, only of God, while ‘asah is used of God and man, the two thus cannot be the same.

If you can find any Bible dictionary, translator or lexicographer that uses these two terms as interchangeable or synonymous, kindly let me know.

464 posted on 02/05/2009 5:11:30 PM PST by count-your-change (You don't have be brilliant, not being stupid is enough.)
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