Which is why I asked you that if God 'asah' man in Gen 1:26 why did he need to 'bara' him in Gen 1:27. If your position is true, how can God 'bara' man in v 27 if he already 'asah' him in v 26?
Your point just hit me with the full force (I’m sure) you intended. Excellent, excellent observation!
Since bara’ means create ‘asah would have to follow. Image and likeness are made, image being not the actual thing but a representation in some way and likeness, similitude.
Bara’ is not used of human acts, only of God, while ‘asah is used of God and man, the two thus cannot be the same.
If you can find any Bible dictionary, translator or lexicographer that uses these two terms as interchangeable or synonymous, kindly let me know.