Posted on 11/19/2008 7:39:55 PM PST by goldstategop
The California constitution allows for “Amendments” to be placed on the ballot by initive, like Prop 8. “Revisions” must be placed on the ballot by 2/3 of the legislature. The suit says it should have been a revision, not and amendment, so it’s not legally part of the constitution. The court has decided twice before in the last 100 years that constitutional ammendments voted on were extensive enough to be revisions and overturned them.
That’s right; thanks for the confirmation. The appellate court doesn’t decide fact.
"Show me just what Mohammed brought that was new, and there you will find things only evil and inhuman, such as his command to spread by the sword the faith he preached." - Manuel II Palelologus
Marxists/socialists/Democrats/”news”persons just hate that will-of-the-people vote thingie, don’t they?
Hello? Isn't it a Constitutional amendment? How cna an amendment to teh Constitution be unconstitutional? Aside from the merits of the specific issue, does anyone see the dangerous precedent there? If we can just start declarign parts of the Constitution unconstitutional, then there go the last remaining rights that we have -- much to the glee of BO and his SS Corps.
The court has decided twice before in the last 100 years that constitutional amendments voted on were extensive enough to be revisions and overturned them.
Thanks for pointing that out.
Prop 8 seems to simply confirm the long-held meaning of a common word. I am told it states in its entirety: Only marriage between a man and a woman is valid or recognized in California.”
Pretty minimal and perhaps the exact opposite of extensive.
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I can’t tell what ground they would have to decide against Prop8? I thought legal clarity was decided before the election.
Can you splain please? Thanks in Advance. lol
LOL, yeah right!
Hi;
I posted a question for you. I really would like to know how they SJ can reverse this ... by what possible reason.
Thanks
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