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To: tatsinfla
Married fathers do not automatically have all parental rights and typically don't get them (i.e. "all" normal parental rights) following divorce - if that's what you mean. The reason he is the presumed father - in current law - is to assign responsibility for child support payments - making it easier for states to collect federal funding. ... i.e. financial obligation, not rights.

As you can see from the case at hand, they assign financial obligations to non-married men as fast and presumptively as possible as well.
138 posted on 10/14/2008 8:45:34 AM PDT by RogerFGay
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To: RogerFGay

no i did not mean following a divorce...for instance in the 1st example of the nonmarried man and woman who live together and have a child. both agree that the child is the mans. now then say the mother is on drugs or an alcoholic and the child is in danger. the father by law can not i repeat can not leave the house with the child for its safety. if he does he can be arrested for kidnapping. (remember the man is on the birth cert)

now then example 2 same situation. the man and woman are married the father can legally take the child out of the home without any repercussions from the law.


143 posted on 10/14/2008 8:57:59 AM PDT by tatsinfla
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