Theres biblical sanction for polygamy.
As far as we can tell, the Bible is fairly accurate on the details of the descriptions of the ‘people’ of the time.
Polygamy wasn’t the only questionable activity being practiced.
Christianity did not exist, at the time. The stories had to be written, before they could be collected and turned into a Bible. So, How could the principles in Christianity be applied to descriptions of what was accept or die behavior , way back then?
“So, How could the principles in Christianity be applied to descriptions of what was accept or die behavior , way back then?”
There is some validity to the argument that without Law there is no sin, but that is probably beyond the scope of the current question: Can Scriptural evidence be given to show Biblical sanction of polygamy?