Shifting? The entire thread concerns Congress using the power of the Commerce Clause to write federal law regulating in-state medical marijuana use. Does it not? Did I miss something?
I'm not "shifting" anything. I simply wanted to know how he thought Congress could regulate some in-state activity (because it's "bad") and not others.
Yes, you did miss something. You missed the basic concept of how the Constitution works. The Feds can write all the laws that they want, and they can enforce them all they want. The states are not obligated to pass the same laws that the feds do. There are a whole host of fed laws that are not also state laws. The state of California has changed its laws regarding marijuana, you keep bringing up bogus arguments about how that is unconstitutional.