[Question_Assumptions]

I don't think the argument that the 2nd Amendment was intended to be limited to militias only is supportable either by the wording of the amendment (which clearly places the right with "the people") nor the early drafts or sources of the Bill of Rights (for example, if you look at early drafts of the 1st Amendment, they include explanatory clauses, like the militia clause, explaining why freedom of speech is important. I think it's hard to read "people" as anything but an individual right.

[vincentfreeman]

"which clearly places the right with "the people"

It clearly does. Not with "the citizens". Not with "all persons".

"I think it's hard to read "people" as anything but an individual right."

Let's accept that. Then how do you read "arms" for these individuals? I see no limitation.