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To: mnehrling
As a matter of fact, the average working American is not liable under Title 26 for any "income tax".

Whatever the text says, the courts have always ruled that they are.

8 posted on 04/21/2008 12:00:27 PM PDT by Mr. Jeeves ("Wise men don't need to debate; men who need to debate are not wise." -- Tao Te Ching)
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To: Mr. Jeeves

Just as the courts will rule when the United Nations decides to impose its own explicit tax on American citizens (in addition to the current indirect tax collected by the federal government to fund UN activities).


24 posted on 04/21/2008 12:31:18 PM PDT by M203M4 (True Universal Suffrage: Pets of dead illegal-immigrant felons voting Democrat (twice))
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To: Mr. Jeeves

Probably because the 16th Amendment to the US Constitution overrides Title 26.


25 posted on 04/21/2008 12:40:38 PM PDT by mnehring
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To: Mr. Jeeves
I am curious where they get that Title 26 says that one is not liable to income taxes. In Title 26, it specifically outlines who is liable.

http://www.law.cornell.edu/uscode/26/usc_sec_26_00000001——000-.html

26 posted on 04/21/2008 12:46:32 PM PDT by mnehring
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To: Mr. Jeeves

The Table 26 ‘out’ is a myth.
http://docs.law.gwu.edu/facweb/jsiegel/Personal/taxes/JustNoLaw.htm

I hope no one goes to jail over the bad advice in this article.


27 posted on 04/21/2008 12:56:02 PM PDT by mnehring
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