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Cool! Finally someone is going to actually answer the question, I'd love to see it, please remember two things in a plural marriage, both Wives are referred to as wife, and the word marriage as far as I have been able to ascertain is both singular and plural, and those are both by their use in the Bible.

You didn't say anything about where polygamy is specifically approved or commanded in the Bible, which is one of the questions I asked you. Nevertheless, I said I could show you where monogamy is speciifcally approved or commanded in the Bible. MEGoody already showed them to you. Here they are again:

1 Timothy 3:2 "A bishop then must be blameless, the husband of one wife, temperate, sober-minded, of good behavior, hospitable, able to teach"
1 Timothy 3:12 "Let deacons be the husbands of one wife, ruling their children and their own houses well."
Titus 1:5-6 "For this reason I left you in Crete, that you should set in order the things that are lacking, and appoint elders in every city as I commanded you — if a man is blameless, the husband of one wife, having faithful children not accused of dissipation or insubordination."

Now, can you show me statements at least as direct as those approving or commanding polygamy in the Bible?

Adultery is not illegal (secular law), but in God's law it is forbidden. in order to have sex and not be guilty of either adultery or fornication, you have to be "Legally and Lawfully married" but legally and lawfully according to which law? I wish the two were the same, but they are not...

Just as an aside, adultery is still illegal in some states; it's just not enforced very often. But I'm curious about your statement that you wish the two (laws) were the same. Where they are the same, aren't polygamous relations the committing of fornication or adultery? And if, God forbid, the Supreme Court were to someday strike down state laws against bigamy and polygamy, would the very same sort of sexual relations with multiple partners that these FLDS people are enaged in no longer be the committing of fornication or adultery?

Cordially,

See what I mean, no proof or effort to prove with specific scripture. He will, however, take great pains to point out to you how your proof is no proof since he and sevenbak claim the Greek leaves open an interpretation of 'one' to be 'a' ... which of course is refuted in Jude, but that isn't relevant when they practice to deceive.

Delf is permanently set on deception mode and constantly in a state of confusion. If it's any consolation, you have unnerved the poster as evidenced in his using the childish 'chuckle and grin' mode he resorts to when he's been shown as a deceiver and in error.

Timothy and Titus citations

DU uses a Joseph Smith Revelation Greek-English lexicon, which by using magical glasses can redefine greek words into what ever the user wants without citation and with a completely clear conscience too.

And let us not forget Art 12 command to obey the laws of the land were given to Smith at shortly after he was given the revelation to disobey the laws of the land (head spinning - must lay down)