Is not the same word used to describe Sarai in the same verse? Are they not both translated "Wife" in nearly every legitimate translation?
Gen 16:3
(ASV) And Sarai, Abram's wife, took Hagar the Egyptian, her handmaid, after Abram had dwelt ten years in the land of Canaan, and gave her to Abram her husband to be his wife.
(CEV) and Sarai gave him Hagar to be his wife. This happened after Abram had lived in the land of Canaan for ten years.
(Darby) And Sarai Abram's wife took Hagar, the Egyptian, her maidservant, at the end of ten years that Abram had dwelt in the land of Canaan, and gave her to her husband Abram, as his wife.
(ESV) So, after Abram had lived ten years in the land of Canaan, Sarai, Abram's wife, took Hagar the Egyptian, her servant, and gave her to Abram her husband as a wife.
(GB) Then Sarai Abrams wife tooke Hagar her maide the Egyptian, after Abram had dwelled ten yeere in the land of Canaan, and gaue her to her husband Abram for his wife.
(JPS) And Sarai Abram's wife took Hagar the Egyptian, her handmaid, after Abram had dwelt ten years in the land of Canaan, and gave her to Abram her husband to be his wife.
(KJV) And Sarai Abram's wife took Hagar her maid the Egyptian, after Abram had dwelt ten years in the land of Canaan, and gave her to her husband Abram to be his wife.
(KJV+) And Sarai8297 Abram's87 wife802 took3947 (853) Hagar1904 her maid8198 the Egyptian,4713 after4480, 7093 Abram87 had dwelt3427 ten6235 years8141 in the land776 of Canaan,3667 and gave5414 her to her husband376 Abram87 to be his wife.802
(LITV) And Sarai, Abram's wife, took her slave-girl, Hagar, the Egyptian, and gave her to her husband Abram to be his wife, after Abram had lived ten years in the land of Canaan.
(MKJV) And Sarai, Abram's wife, took Hagar her slave woman, the Egyptian, and gave her to her husband Abram to be his wife (after Abram had lived ten years in the land of Canaan).
(MSG) So Sarai, Abram's wife, took her Egyptian maid Hagar and gave her to her husband Abram as a wife. Abram had been living ten years in Canaan when this took place.
(RSV) So, after Abram had dwelt ten years in the land of Canaan, Sar'ai, Abram's wife, took Hagar the Egyptian, her maid, and gave her to Abram her husband as a wife.
(WEB) Sarai, Abram's wife, took Hagar the Egyptian, her handmaid, after Abram had lived ten years in the land of Canaan, and gave her to Abram her husband to be his wife.
(Webster) And Sarai, Abram's wife, took Hagar her maid, the Egyptian, after Abram had dwelt ten years in the land of Canaan, and gave her to her husband Abram to be his wife.
(YLT) And Sarai, Abram's wife, taketh Hagar the Egyptian, her handmaid, at the end of the tenth year of Abram's dwelling in the land of Canaan, and giveth her to Abram her husband, to him for a wife,
Yes, but as I've already said, Moses was the author of Genesis 16 just like he was the author of Gen.7. And the same word Moses used in Gen. 16 is also translated as "mate" in Gen. 7:2. [And note, it's also translated as "woman"--in reference to a "concubine"--in Judges 19:26]
Take with you seven of every kind of clean animal, a male and its mate, and two of every kind of unclean animal, a male and its mate (Gen. 7:2)
Moses could have been saying in Gen. 16:3: Sarai his wife took her Egyptian maidservant Hagar and gave her to her husband to be his mate. (And I don't think those "mates" in Gen. 7 were married--though definitely the purpose of a male & female on board the ark was NONE OTHER than procreation! So it would definitely be not just "mate" but implied (sexual) mate).
"...the man took his concubine and sent her outside to them, and they raped her and abused her throughout the night, and at dawn they let her go. At daybreak the woman [Hebrew=issah or ishshah] went back to the house where her master was staying, fell down... (Judges 19:25-26)
Now just because the same word is used here as for "bride" in a Genesis passage & another in Deuteronomy passage, or for Sarah as "wife," doesn't convert this woman into anything other than a concubine in a master-subject relationship.