OK I'll settle for a verse or two that would serve as a foundation for your "suggestion."
I believe in the passage I quoted, God DID condone it.
Which means that since the same verse...and the three before it and the one after it talks about civil treatment of slaves, are you consistent in saying you believe God DID condone slavery?
“OK I’ll settle for a verse or two that would serve as a foundation for your ‘suggestion.’”
What about the entire book of Philemon? As you accurately suggest, the verses from Exodus would also qualify as condoning the practice, though clearly not advocating it.