It's similar to the right to vote or the right to assemble.
So if an individual is denied the right to vote, the Court can deny them standing because it is only a "collective right"? And if a person is arrested at an assembly, they can be convicted because they are only a "person" and not an "assemblage of persons"? You do know that is not the case, don't you?
The term "collective right" was invented by anti-gunners to try to explain away the language of the Second Amendment. Please cite the earliest use of the term you can find and how it doesn't pertain to the Second Amendment. Try to find the term in the writings of our Founders or in their most substantial product, the Constitution of the United States.