[tacticalogic]

The Founders were quite specific when they wrote "the people". The people referred to a certain group of citizens. The DC Circuit Court in US v Parker cofirms this.

Do the supporting documents written by the Founders confirm this? Why rely on judicial opinions, written years later by jurists who weren't there? If you're going to look for writings to confirm that interpretation why not start with the source?

[robertpaulsen]

"Do the supporting documents written by the Founders confirm this?"

How about the U.S. Constitution?

Article I, Section 2 reads (in part), "The House of Representatives shall be composed of members chosen every second year by the people of the several states ..." (my underline)

"The people" = the voters. Who voted in 1792? Adult, white, male citizens. They were "the people".

If you believe "the people" means something else, I'd like to hear it.