Yes.
Article I, Section 2 of the U.S. Constitution reads, "The House of Representatives shall be composed of members chosen every second year by the people of the several states ..." (my underline).
You're saying men, women and small children, citizens, non-citizens and foreign visitors, the Indian tribes, prisoners, the mentally ill, and the insane, illegal aliens, felons, and terrorists vote?
No, they don't vote. But that's not the question--you've skipped a step. They are "people" for the purposes of the clause, but just because they are people doesn't mean that they are entitled to vote.
The reason why is because we're not just dealing with the federal government. The states have governments, too, and the states were free to regulate elections as they saw fit, including, if they so desired, restricting the franchise. But that restriction doesn't mean that those groups aren't "the people" for purposes of that clause.
And you are saying that people over 45 did not vote?