And how has he arrived at this conclusion? Are there studies to confirm it? Has he interviewed conservatives personally and asked them to explain what they mean, then find out they can't explain themselves? In order to use the modifier "typically", he would have to use a large sampling of that group to make a blanket statement like that. Where is his documentation to back up this assertion?
I am becoming increasingly annoyed with leftist writers who concoct these inflammatory conclusions out of whole cloth with no accountability. This is a form of brainwashing.
Same as the government school brainwashing of the past 30 years.