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1 posted on 01/28/2008 8:39:19 AM PST by kiriath_jearim
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To: kiriath_jearim
B-but even my kitty guards the house for extra safety at night:


2 posted on 01/28/2008 8:54:00 AM PST by Karliner ("Things are more like they are now than they ever were before. DDE)
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To: kiriath_jearim

The POTUS and his in-Justice Department has asked the SCOTUS to suspend the rights of Americans to Keep and Bear Arms.


3 posted on 01/28/2008 9:12:31 AM PST by Vaquero (" an armed society is a polite society" Heinlein "MOLON LABE!" Leonidas of Sparta)
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To: harpseal; TexasCowboy; AAABEST; Travis McGee; Squantos; Shooter 2.5; wku man; SLB; ...
Lots of strong technical and historical info here. Not an easy read, but worthwhile.

Click the Gadsden flag for pro-gun resources!

4 posted on 01/28/2008 9:22:17 AM PST by Joe Brower (Sheep have three speeds: "graze", "stampede" and "cower".)
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To: kiriath_jearim

One of the co-authors of this report, Saul Cornell, is a big anti-gunner. [url](http://volokh.com/posts/1173746455.shtml[/url]) Also note an advertisement on the webpage that this article comes from that endorses Obama. This report is not from a random group of historians that got together and objectively decided that the 2nd Amendment does not support the individual right to keep and bear arms, but rather anti-gunners getting together with an agenda.

The fact that the English Bill of Rights allowed for goverment regulation of firearms does not limit the American constitution from specifically forbading this. If the writers of the American Bill of Rights had wanted possible regulation, they would have said so. Instead, that used the blanket “shall not be infringed”.

From the aricle: “Nothing in this argument challenges the idea that eighteenth-century Americans had ready access to firearms, or that they valued the concept of a well-armed citizenry. Individuals were legally free to purchase and keep weapons as they could other property; but like other forms of property, the keeping of firearms was subject to extensive legal regulation.”

What regulation? That slaves couldn’t own guns? That is all I ever heard of.

“They rejected language that would have modified that authority, including a qualifying provision, proposed by the House of Representatives, defining the militia as “composed of the body of the people.” Acceptance of that definition would impair congressional authority to determine how extensive membership in the militia should be.”

While militia membership was an important reason to keep and bear arms, the lack of it does not restrict the right to keep and bear arms. The militia phrase of the 2nd Amendment does not limit the “shall not be infringed” phrase. The milita phrase is a declaration of intent, but is no restrictive in anyway.

Fore more info: [url]http://www.guncite.com/gc2ndpur.html[/url]


5 posted on 01/28/2008 9:27:20 AM PST by Creeping Incrementalism
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To: kiriath_jearim

IBrp
...ok, now I can go read the article...


6 posted on 01/28/2008 9:34:36 AM PST by woollyone (entropy extirpates evolution and conservation confirms the Creator blessed forever.)
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To: kiriath_jearim
"Another source of power in government is a military force. But this, to be efficient, must be superior to any force that exists among the people, or which they can command; for otherwise this force would be annihilated, on the first exercise of acts of oppression. Before a standing army can rule, the people must be disarmed; as they are in almost every kingdom in Europe. The supreme power in America cannot enforce unjust laws by the sword; because the whole body of the people are armed, and constitute a force superior to any band of regular troops that can be, on any pretense, raised in the United States. A military force, at the command of Congress, can execute no laws, but such as the people perceive to be just and constitutional; for they will possess the power, and jealousy will instantly inspire the inclination, to resist the execution of a law which appears to them unjust and oppressive." - Noah Webster, An Examination of The Leading Principles of the Federal Constitution, Philadelphia, 1787

I guess Noah didn't get the same notification as the articles authors...

10 posted on 01/28/2008 9:52:34 AM PST by Dead Corpse (What would a free man do?)
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To: kiriath_jearim
Lots of reliance on British documents and events to obfuscate the clear wording of the Second.

It's nice the Brits started moving toward indiviual rights in 1689, but 'the right to keep and bear arms shall not be infringed' seems simplistically clear, no matter how hard the leftists in this administration attempt to muddy up the meaning.

11 posted on 01/28/2008 9:53:47 AM PST by JOAT
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To: kiriath_jearim
The SCOTUS ruling will be narrowly focused on the District of Columbia and follow along the lines that even though there is protection for the citizens under the 2nd Amendment, there is nothing in the provisions with regard to local control over weapons ownership in an area not covered by the 'states' provision of the 2nd Amendment.

Mark my words.

13 posted on 01/28/2008 10:12:28 AM PST by Pistolshot (Those with a lively sense of curiosity learn something new every day of their lives.)
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To: kiriath_jearim

Buy guns! The more we buy, the less likely they will try to come and get them. But if they do, the less likely they’ll be successful at it.


16 posted on 01/28/2008 10:25:21 AM PST by Niteranger68 (Either order from the menu or go open your own restaurant.)
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To: kiriath_jearim
"Individuals were legally free to purchase and keep weapons as they could other property; but like other forms of property, the keeping of firearms was subject to extensive legal regulation. What is at dispute is whether legal rights of private ownership were what the Second Amendment constitutionally entrenched"

Context...
Any "extensive legal regulation" (hyperbole!) was the KING'S regulations. This author is essentially stating..."well, since there were regulations when we were ruled by the King of merry ol' England, then that is the premise upon which we must factor our understanding of our constitution. Horsey pucky!

It is from exactly that monarch's rule we wished to Declare our Independence. So to use the monarch's law as a basis for understanding our forefathers' intent is silliness in the extreme. The best way to understand any author's meaning is to let the author explain it, not let his sworn enemies deifine his intent! And we can read the needed explanations in the Federalist papers and the various quotes from our Founding Fathers.

The King had subjects who only had rights the government decided they had.
We declared ourselves to be citizens, based upon rights our Creator gave us.

The author needs to revise many of his premises before printing this leftist drivel.

Howeve, on another note...we could probably make a strong argument for basing our understanding up Scottish Law....riiiiiight?.../s

21 posted on 01/28/2008 11:01:32 AM PST by woollyone (entropy extirpates evolution and conservation confirms the Creator blessed forever.)
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To: kiriath_jearim

Obfuscation; the central question is whether the language is enough to decide the right or to disallow it.

Why would any reasonable man conclude that if the government was to hold that right to itself would it be so central to the all-important Bill of Rights to then include it as the penultimate right of a free society?


28 posted on 01/28/2008 11:12:18 AM PST by Old Professer (The critic writes with rapier pen, dips it twice, and writes again.)
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To: kiriath_jearim
From the article: They rejected language that would have modified that authority, including a qualifying provision, proposed by the House of Representatives, defining the militia as “composed of the body of the people.” Acceptance of that definition would impair congressional authority to determine how extensive membership in the militia should be.

What an incredible argument.

The authors of the brief are suggesting that Congress has the power to define the militia as consisting of only infants below the age of two years, and that, therefor, all other people can be disarmed. No state could form a "well-regulated Militia" if Congress had such power.

The situation today demonstrates clearly that Congress could and has neglected the arming and organizing of anything that could be mistaken for a state militia. This makes it all too obvious that Congress does not have the power to disarm THE PEOPLE regardless of how they define the militia.

29 posted on 01/28/2008 11:12:21 AM PST by William Tell (RKBA for California (rkba.members.sonic.net) - Volunteer by contacting Dave at rkba@sonic.net)
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To: kiriath_jearim
This brief suffers the same defect as that of the US Solicitor General; that is, it is equivalent to stating, "that the right of the citizens of Boston to keep and bear arms in 1792, after the ratification of the Bill of Rights, is the same as their right on April 19th, 1775, the day that government troops killed them while attempting to disarm them."

The brief is suggesting that the struggle to obtain and possess arms during the oppression of their government played no part in the passage of the Second Amendment. It is historical nonsense of the highest degree.

The cannon which were instrumental in ejecting the occupying military forces from Boston were taken by force of arms from the existing government of the day at Fort Ticonderoga. The protection of the right of "the people", not the militia, to keep and bear arms was to relieve them of having to obtain them from an oppressive government.

37 posted on 01/28/2008 11:22:27 AM PST by William Tell (RKBA for California (rkba.members.sonic.net) - Volunteer by contacting Dave at rkba@sonic.net)
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To: kiriath_jearim
What is ironic as hell is the fact that these 'scholars' are relying on papers for the basis of their argument which are form the very country that we fought for 7 years to escape from.

Any particular reason we should use the English examples of laws when they are the very people that we fought in order to gain our freedom???

47 posted on 01/28/2008 12:01:35 PM PST by Centurion2000 (It's only arrogance if you can't back it up.)
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To: kiriath_jearim

They can’t legally do it.
But governments have taken many of our rights away illegally. They do it a little at a time, so that one day we wake up and we are in the soviet union.


51 posted on 01/28/2008 12:13:01 PM PST by Leftism is Mentally Deranged
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To: kiriath_jearim

I’d like to see them deny all citizens the right to bear arms.

It won’t end up pretty.


73 posted on 01/28/2008 2:02:04 PM PST by wastedyears (This is my BOOMSTICK)
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To: kiriath_jearim
"A well regulated Militia, being necessary to the security of a free State, the right of the people to keep and bear Arms, shall not be infringed."

right - something to which one has a just claim: as

a: the power or privilege to which one is justly entitled

b: (1): the interest that one has in a piece of property —often used in plural

(2)plural : the property interest possessed under law or custom and agreement in an intangible thing especially of a literary and artistic nature

infringe - to encroach upon in a way that violates law or the rights of another

What are the liberals and gun-grabbers CONSTANTLY forgetting about this amendment?

"We the People of the United States..."

The people wrote this document. The people ratified this document. The people are protected by this document. It is for the benefit of "We the people".

I am "justly entitled" to keep, and bear, arms. That is my right as an American. And that right cannot be infringed.

76 posted on 01/28/2008 2:13:41 PM PST by Bryan24 (When in doubt, move to the right..........)
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To: kiriath_jearim

94 replies and RobertPaulsen hasn’t pooped all over this thread? He must not be feeling well.


95 posted on 01/28/2008 5:20:40 PM PST by Nachoman (My guns and my ammo, they comfort me.)
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