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To: tortdog
That’s your choice. What’s your point? That God would never order His people to conform to a nation’s law for their safety, well-being, and progress?

god, according to Smith in 132 verse 4, stated that not to abide by that covenant they would be damned. Clearly that was practiced by Smith in earnestness with god's direction contrary to the law of the land. Polygamy was a (if not the) major force driving their rejection and forcing their move to Utah. So the safety, well being and progress didn't apply to his people then, but suddenly 47 years later it did? Why would god change his mind in that short of period?

82 posted on 01/08/2008 12:55:32 PM PST by Godzilla (Chaos, panic, and disorder .... my work here is done.)
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To: Godzilla

>stated that not to abide by that covenant they would be damned.

Right. Because it is an everlasting covenant. You can’t make the covenant and then break it.

>god’s direction contrary to the law of the land. Polygamy was a (if not the) major force driving their rejection and forcing their move to Utah.

It appears that the Church took the law of God above the law of man. I’m not sure that you could argue it was the “major driving” of their rejection, though. Polygamy was not widely practiced among the members of the Church.

>So the safety, well being and progress didn’t apply to his people then, but suddenly 47 years later it did? Why would god change his mind in that short of period?

Why would God tell Moses to settle the land of Israel and then tell him later that he couldn’t go in?

Same God?


88 posted on 01/08/2008 1:01:50 PM PST by tortdog
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