If God found it just to limit the priesthood to members of a certain tribe (of a certain race) in the Old Testament, who are we to argue that he was wrong to open it up to a wider audience later but still impose a restriction (albeit smaller)?
ROFLOL!!!!
Obviously J. Smith and/or B. Young were great biblical scholars....
You are a hoot.
How about explaining what my error is in the explanation I provided by the Old Testament?