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To: Joe Brower; Old_Professor
It would appear to me it is possible their choicely verbiage of “....violate the Second Amendment rights of individuals who are not affiliated with any state-regulated militia...” is an indication of their actual acknowledgment of the Constitutional right of gun ownership absent any state affiliation of the individual. That said, there's hope DC's infringements might not survive the SCOTUS battle.

What think ye?

104 posted on 11/20/2007 12:06:20 PM PST by azhenfud (The fool hath said in his heart, There is no God.)
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To: azhenfud
I wasn't asked, but...

I think the phrasing of the question means we have already won. The "not affiliated" bit excises any discussion of the right as "collective"; if it is not an individual right (or at least has an individual component), then there is simply nothing to discuss.

109 posted on 11/20/2007 12:17:44 PM PST by ctdonath2 (The color blue tastes like the square root of 0?)
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