Most likely not. If the transfer of the mortgage from the original lender to the trust wasn't proper, the original lender will have to foreclose. The court's just saying 'you don't have standing to foreclose', it's not saying 'nobody can foreclose'.
If the original lender sold the note, then he has already been paid. He has no demonstrable injury and therefore no standing to sue either.
It is Wall Street that created this mess and the FR and SEC, etc. that looked the other way.