[Busywhiskers]

I understand. You’re saying that “the” Matthew wrote an account in Hebrew and then another Matthew used to write the gospel in Greek. Could be...but it violates Occam’s Razor, “non entia multiplicandia sunt prater necessetatum”. Don’t multiply entities beyond necessity. What’s the necessity of the Hebrew source is my question?

[RightWhale]

My taq refers to my attitude about Ockham’s razor. He never actually said that.

Matthew, Mark, and Luke used the Hebrew Matthew as source. Luke of course went quite a bit beyond with his second book.

[naturalized]

Not to tell you what you already know, but you might find this an interesting read:

Understanding the Difficult Words of Jesus