“Rape isn’t based on subjective “distastefulness.” It’s an objective legal thing centering on consent.”
Agreed, but does anyone here honestly believe that consent would have been witheld if the money had been paid.
If a prostitute chooses to lower themselves to the level of selling sex as a commodity and the dispensation of it as a business endeavor then it should be legally treated as such.
Assault probably, armed robbery, likely, kidnapping, possibly,but rape NO.
The law doesnt't recognize sexual intercourse as a commodity in the jurisdiction in which the crime was committed. If she chooses to sell other things that the law doesn't recognize as commodities-- say she offers to sell her children and somebody takes her children without paying--- should that be treated as theft? Or kidnapping?
That's not to say she should be held innocent in such a case. If a woman attempts to contract to sell her children, she can be prosecuted for that. If a woman solicits for prostitution, she should be prosecuted for solicitation. And the men, in this case, prosecuted for rape.