[Nervous Tick]

>> The 4% is “point prevalence.” If you take lifetime experience it is higher. At least 5%.

Proof?

Not flimsy studies, mind you. Proof?

[shrinkermd]

"For a discussion of how the Kinsey data came to be widely understood as supporting the ten percent figure, see Voeller (1990). Support for the ten percent figure was also provided by Paul Gebhard (director of the Kinsey Institute) in a 1977 memo to the National Gay Task Force.

All surveys are likely to underestimate the actual prevalence of homosexuality because, fearing discrimination and stigma, many gay respondents are reluctant to tell a stranger (even anonymously) that they are homosexual (e.g., Villarroel et al., 2006). Recognizing this limitation, most research with probability samples suggests that at least 3-6% of the US adult male population is homosexual, with somewhat fewer females (Fay, Turner, Klassen, & Gagnon, 1989; Hatfield, 1989; Laumann, Gagnon, Michael, & Michaels, 1994; Lever & Kanouse, 1996; Rogers & Turner, 1991).

The source is: HERE

The above figures are problematical. It all depends upon the homosexual acts included-fellatio, fondling, sodomy, mutual masturbation and so forth. Some more restrictive definitions get a point prevalence of 2% while others get 6%. 4% is what is usually used.

If you are interested all you need do is Google "Incidence of male homosexuality" and you can read for hours.