Only in the modern theory of instant gratification.
"If the denial of all firearm sales for three days does not constitute an infringement upon the right to keep and bear arms, what exactly would?"
Did you read my last post to you? Note the contrast between the NO aciton and Rendell's PA action. There's a world of difference. There's also a world of difference when the right infringed more. or less completely, as in DC, CA, MA, NY, NJ, IL, ect...
Only in the modern theory of instant gratification.
That exact language may not have been used until the Civil Rights era (don't know if it was or not), but the concept is hardly new. But I'm curious--suppose Pennsylvania had taken down the system for a week. Would that have infringed anybody's RKBA? What if it was for a month? A year? A decade? A century? If there is some time interval between three days and a century that makes a delay become an infringement, exactly how long is it and on what basis do you make that determination?
Did you read my last post to you? Note the contrast between the NO aciton and Rendell's PA action. There's a world of difference.
The NO action was clearly an infringement of rights. I fail to see how that in any way, shape, or form implies that the Pennsylvania action was not.