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To: JSDude1
Secession wasn’t even illigal: per the 10th paraphrased “whatever (powers) not explicitly granted to the Federal government, shall be reserved to the states, and to the people of those states”..

Try quoting accurately. What the 10th Amendment says is: "The powers not delegated to the United States by the Constitution, nor prohibited by it to the States, are reserved to the States respectively, or to the people." The word 'explicitly' does not appear, and you completely forgot the part about powers prohibited to the states. Implied in the Constitution is the need for Congressional approval to leave.

The Confederacy had a legal right to form and exist..

Sorry, but it did not.

71 posted on 08/27/2007 4:50:22 PM PDT by Non-Sequitur (Save Fredericks-burg. Support CVBT.)
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To: Non-Sequitur

Firstly before you blow your top (if you haven’t already): I specifically stated I was PARAphrasing..meaing quoting it from what I remeber, but not completely accurate..

Second, the Tenth Amendment, which you clearly posted (Thank You!), clearly states the ‘powers not delegated to the United States, ARE reserved to the States, or to the people”. How do you NOT see that the States reserved the power to leave (included in the powers ‘reserved to the states’). There is NO Congressional aproval necessary for leaving the United States or dissolving their bonds, not implied, and not explicitly states: if otherwise; PRove it!

The did have the power to seceed legally, wheather you want to acknowledge that or not is your responsibility!

And if you want to get technical (the ‘Contental Congress’) DID NOT have the legal authority to amend (rather scrap) the Articles (our first Constitution..). Try rationalizing that!..


88 posted on 08/27/2007 6:12:30 PM PDT by JSDude1 (Republicans if the don't beware ARE the new WHIGS! (all empty hairpieces..) :).)
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To: Non-Sequitur
What the 10th Amendment says is: "The powers not delegated to the United States by the Constitution, nor prohibited by it to the States, are reserved to the States respectively, or to the people." The word 'explicitly' does not appear, and you completely forgot the part about powers prohibited to the states. Implied in the Constitution is the need for Congressional approval to leave.

Just curious, what part of the Constitution says that the Constitution can "imply" delegated powers to the federal government? Secession is not mentioned in the document, correct?

Therefore, secession is neither delegated (dictionary.com defines this as "committed") to the federal government, nor is it prohibited to the states. How does congressional approval fit into this, then? The congress, constitutionally, cannot self-delegate powers that are not already given them because such powers "are reserved to the States respectively, or to the people".

I'm afraid I fail to follow your leap of logic, FRiend.

104 posted on 08/27/2007 7:40:50 PM PDT by MortMan (Have a pheasant plucking day!)
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To: Non-Sequitur; All
SORRY, N-S but (once again) you're (KNOWINGLY) posting FICTION.

it's no more complicated than this: NONE of the states would have FREELY entered into a union from which they could not just as FREELY depart "on their own motion", should joining that union prove NOT to be in their informed self-interest.

note to ALL: N-S is The DAMNyankee Minister of PROPAGANDA. further, he said n another WBTS thread that he was an EXPERT "on every subject". he is a LEGEND "in his own mind."

free dixie,sw

189 posted on 08/28/2007 9:26:04 AM PDT by stand watie ("Resistance to tyrants is OBEDIENCE to God." - T. Jefferson, 1804)
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