[Non-Sequitur]

The source of your confusion is this - it refers to abandonment or separation WITHOUT a bill of divorcement. It's the same principle today - one cannot have multiple spouses.

The confusion seems to lie with you, since Mark 10:3 clearly refers to the bill of divorcement. But I'll humor you. If, in your learned opinion, Matthew is actually talking about divorce then can we at least agree that those who divorce for reasons other than infidelity and who later remarry are, in fact, committing adultery against their former spouse?

[4CJ]

[C]an we at least agree that those who divorce for reasons other than infidelity and who later remarry are, in fact, committing adultery against their former spouse?

That's what Jesus says, and I believe Him. Can we at least agree that those who divorce for reasons of infidelity and who later remarry are, in fact, NOT committing adultery against their former spouse?