[FormerLib]

Jesus said that those who divorce and remarry are committing adultery.

But He also acknowledged that there were legitimate causes for a marriage to end, did He not?

And did He address marriages where one party is deceiving the other?

[Non-Sequitur]

But He also acknowledged that there were legitimate causes for a marriage to end, did He not?

Depends on which Gospel you refer to. But at best He allowed for divorce only in cases of infidelity. That accounts for a small minority of all divorces. So should the rest be condemned as sinners?