To: kinoxi
Sharia law claims universal jurisdiction, and the habitual references of the Supreme Court to foreign law clearly bind our judicial system to acknowledge it. How is any particular foreign legal tradition (besides English common law from which our legal tradition derives) any more worthy of our intrinsic adoption than another?
35 posted on
07/29/2007 1:50:05 PM PDT by
dufekin
(Name the leader of our enemy: Islamic Republic of Iran, Mahmoud Ahmadinejad, terrorist dictator)
To: dufekin
There is no universal sharia law for one thing. It cannot be codified as it is made up on the spot in many cases, hence the multitude of conflicting fatwas and erratic/homicidal interpretations.
37 posted on
07/29/2007 1:54:26 PM PDT by
kinoxi
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