Maybe because "homosexual" is an English term that came into use in the 19th Century?
Did Jesus ever speak against sexual immorality? Would "sexual immorality" have been understood by the largely Jewish audience to include homosexual acts?
I think fat boy's coming out of the closet on this one.
He also said “man must not lay with man, as with a women. Pretty clear to me! Also the Bible does use the word sodomy. Then there is the whole story in the Bible about men with men women with women, and his giving them over to their lustful ways.