No, but they do today, except for children. So what?
I seem to recall that only white, male, citizen landowners voted in 1792. I'm wrong?
So where is that specified in the Constitution? So only militia members can vote? Only voters can be in the militia? Which is it? Oh wait, neither, because YOU MADE THIS UP.
The people are the citizens, a collection of individuals who each and all have rights recognized by the Constitution. Now I acknowledge that in the past some people have had have their rights denied for various reasons, but we have been correcting that over time. So now women and minorities are enfranchised, and 45 is no longer old. Deal with it, but don't try to redefine the plain meaning of words.
So what? Geez Louise. You just got finished saying that "the people" meant "all citizens" and now you concede that it didn't mean women and children and you say, "So what?" That doesn't bother you?
"The people are the citizens"
Here we go again. You have no shame.
"Now I acknowledge that in the past some people have had have their rights denied for various reasons"
Yes, it's possible that their rights were unconstitutionally denied for 200 years. Then again, it's possible that THEY NEVER HAD THE RIGHT TO VOTE. What do you think is more likely?
"So now women and minorities are enfranchised, and 45 is no longer old"
That is correct. The definition of "the people" has changed over time. But the Founder's original intent, the Founder's original meaning of "the people", were those white, male, citizen landowners who were entitled to vote and formed the group from which some were selected for Militia duty.