You are, of course, referring to the second amendment?
The vast majority of the courts have ruled that it protects a collective right -- the right of individuals to keep and bear arms as part of a Militia shall not be infringed by the federal government. That's what I'm saying.
As to this individual pre-existing right to keep and bear arms you're referring to, that right is protected by each state's constitution.
So you’re saying that because some courts, government employees, make a finding which favors the government, it MUST be right, even if it cannot be squared with the merits, as interpreted by a non-government-employee of average intelligence???
I’m not posting this to take a position the issue as much as to chide you for relying on court findings as if they could supersede the merits.
Yet you seem to admit that the very "pre-existing" right to which we are referring, is the right that shall not be infringed in the Second Amendment. The Second Amendment doesn't create a right. If it doesn't create a right, then how do you justify suggesting that it only protects a part of the right to which it refers?