To: Lurking Libertarian
No, they are not. This was clearly outlined in the introduction and debate on the citizenship clause of the 14th amendment.
You can read the whole thing online. "Subject to the jurisdiction thereof" meant citizens- basically those who had sworn a loyalty oath to the US.
42 posted on
06/22/2007 9:50:09 AM PDT by
flashbunny
(<--- Free Anti-Rino graphics! See Rudy the Rino get exposed as a liberal with his own words!)
To: flashbunny
That’s right: the 13th, 14th and 15th Amendments were passed shortly after the Civil War/War Between the States.
Let’s see now, why was that—why did the Congress do that: pass 3 amendments, bing-badda-boom . . . ?
Oh yeah! The 14th Amend., particularly, was passed so that approx. 150 years later Mexican nationals could rush across the border and drop `anchor-ninos’ in American hospitals!
That’s exactly what the `con-law scholars’ would have you believe.
63 posted on
06/22/2007 10:00:34 AM PDT by
tumblindice
(If the Congress is first among equals, why doesn't it act like it?)
To: flashbunny
You can read the whole thing online. EL-Link-o?
Thanks!
152 posted on
06/22/2007 11:48:54 AM PDT by
TLI
( ITINERIS IMPENDEO VALHALLA)
To: flashbunny
Good job. Howard ( who coauthored the amendment ) specifically said that the Amendment would not cover individuals who were "foreigners, aliens". Illegal immigrants definitely fall into that category.
155 posted on
06/22/2007 11:54:19 AM PDT by
Cyropaedia
("Virtue cannot separate itself from reality without becoming a principal of evil...".)
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