Not to argue but to make a point. If high crimes and misdemeanors were true, Bill Clinton would have been convicted in the US Senate. The standard, right or wrong, was changed because of the Andrew Johnson impeachment which used the standard of a crime being committed, and not bad behavior as the founding fathers intended or the Federalist Papers explained.
The Constitution states that the absence of "good behavior" is a reason for the impeachment of judges. As I stated above, and as I'm sure you know, the Constitution says something totally different for the reasons why a president can be impeached.
Why, if the intent of the founding fathers was to have "bad behavior" as a reason for the impeachment of a president, did they not specifically say so as they did for judges?
And, what evidence does the Federalist Papers give to support your point and to contradict the plain language of the Constitution?