As folks around these parts ought to know by now, I am a great lover of our Constitution and a particular friend to the Bill of Rights. I appreciate the extent to which our Founders risked their "lives, fortunes and sacred honor" in order to ensure the blessings of Liberty to themselves and to succeeding generations.
In that spirit, I would like to ask a simple, if somewhat pointed question: If the Rights of Man come from our Creator and are truly "inalienable", how may they in any instance be made subservient to any International Treaty, no matter how arrived at and as affirmed by whatever number of our elected Representatives?
I anxiously await your response.
- Andy
If the Rights of Man come from our Creator and are truly "inalienable", how may they in any instance be made subservient to any International Treaty, no matter how arrived at and as affirmed by whatever number of our elected Representatives? Right cannot be subservient, they can only be violated. The rights of men can be violated, but only if they become subservient.