[Netizen]

I was asked which law he referred to. I had to give you my best guess since Jesus did not specify. Clearly it was understood by those who opposed him or he would not have referenced it. Neither is it that one verse. I gave you the whole exchange as it is written in the scriptures. I clearly fits the context of his reply and what he is trying to tell them. Or are you saying that particular verse is translated incorrectly?

No, I asked what verse he was talking about,. not which law. The fact that he doesn't say, you had to go look for possibilities. The fact that the possibilities don't come from the law (first 5 books of the OT, otherwise known as the Pentateuch) creates a problem.

Here's another verse that sticks out like a sore thumb.

Jhn 20:9 For as yet they knew not the scripture, that he must rise again from the dead.

How can it be that his resurrection was prophecied, yet, no one knew about?

[DanielLongo]

Again, if you believe there is a mistranslation, you are entitled to that opinion. I happen to believe the verse is correct. In fact, perhaps the verse he is quoting from the “law” is the one missing from our current text. What I accept as revealed truth leads me to believe what I quoted and why. If you have a different opinion, that’s fine.