To: 2ndDivisionVet
Since when does one third of anything qualify for "many?"
8 posted on
03/26/2007 8:54:03 PM PDT by
madison10
To: madison10
Since when does one third of anything qualify for "many?" I guess that depends on the situation...If you were in the woods and came across 6 bears and only 2 came after you....
To: madison10
Since when does one third of anything qualify for "many?" Since in a country the size of America, it works out to about 100 million people.
39 posted on
03/26/2007 9:55:58 PM PDT by
Cymbaline
(I repeat myself when under stress I repeat myself when under stress I repeat myself when under stres)
To: madison10
ahh since "consemsus" negotiation.
The phrase "we have a consensus" is just code for a plurality or a just a loud minority view.
79 posted on
03/27/2007 6:09:38 AM PDT by
longtermmemmory
(VOTE! http://www.senate.gov and http://www.house.gov)
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