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To: 2ndDivisionVet

Since when does one third of anything qualify for "many?"


8 posted on 03/26/2007 8:54:03 PM PDT by madison10
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To: madison10
Since when does one third of anything qualify for "many?"

I guess that depends on the situation...If you were in the woods and came across 6 bears and only 2 came after you....

12 posted on 03/26/2007 8:57:31 PM PDT by txroadkill
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To: madison10
Since when does one third of anything qualify for "many?"

Since in a country the size of America, it works out to about 100 million people.

39 posted on 03/26/2007 9:55:58 PM PDT by Cymbaline (I repeat myself when under stress I repeat myself when under stress I repeat myself when under stres)
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To: madison10

ahh since "consemsus" negotiation.

The phrase "we have a consensus" is just code for a plurality or a just a loud minority view.


79 posted on 03/27/2007 6:09:38 AM PDT by longtermmemmory (VOTE! http://www.senate.gov and http://www.house.gov)
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