explain that statement please.
As all the criminals flee a DC populace once again able to defend itself from their predation.
1) Washington, DC is a Federal District. It is not a part of any state, and has its own government, subject only (and directly) to the US Congress.
2) Currently, Washington DC city ordinance effectively prohibits the citizen ownership of any firearms. Even long guns must be stored disassembled.
3) Washington, DC has a very high crime rate. The surrounding areas of Virginia (that's one of the 50 States) and Maryland (another of the 50 States), have lower crime rates.
4) Virginia has a "shall issue" concealed carry law, and State-level preemption of local gun ordinances.
5) Maryland has a "we won't issue unless you're politically connected" concealed carry law; as well it bans the ownership of a variety of guns that it calls "assault weapons"
6) Prince George's County and Montgomery County Maryland have higher crime rates than Arlington County and Fairfax County Virginia.
These are simple statements of fact; data upon which to base one's reasoning.
The court decision will likely make citizen gun ownership in Washington, DC much easier. How do you suppose Washington, DC's 'private sector' criminal class, which has somehow managed all these years to acquire guns, react to the peacable citizens beginning to arm themselves?