"The Supremacy Clause doesn't mean everything in the contract applies to the states. Otherwise the states could coin money and set up Post Offices."
bobby, learn to read with comprehension. Article I, sec 8,
"The Congress shall have Power...To coin Money, regulate the Value thereof...To establish Post Offices and post Roads..."
then we have:
Amendment X
"The powers not delegated to the United States by the Constitution, nor prohibited by it to the States, are reserved to the States respectively, or to the people."
And since the power to coin money and to establish post offices IS, in fact, delegated to the (Congress of the) United States, I guess that shoots you right down, doesn't it?
Then we have:
Article VI
This Constitution, and the Laws of the United States which shall be made in Pursuance thereof; and all Treaties made, or which shall be made, under the Authority of the United States, shall be the supreme Law of the Land; and the Judges in every State shall be bound thereby, any Thing in the Constitution or Laws of any State to the Contrary notwithstanding.
Now can you point out where the Constitution says otherwise, since we have here its relevant words?
Nope. Article VI says the constitution is the law of the land, meaning it's the law of the states also. Correct?
Which means the states can print money. It's right there in the constitution. You even pointed it out. If it's in the constitution, it applies to the states because of the supremacy clause.
Here's proof. The first amendment says Congress shall make no law ...(just like is says Congress has the power to coin money). Yet the first amendment applies to the states, doesn't it? Same thing with printing money. Article VI says so.