I don't know the procedure for sure on this, so I'm asking, too. But if his Secretary of State and his head of SS has signed the agreement in Mexico, isn't it "signed" by this administration? Does he actually need to "sign" it?
http://www.ssa.gov/history/2000.html
June 29, 2004 SSA Commissioner Jo Anne Barnhart signed a "totalization" agreement in Mexico City with with Dr. Santiago Levy Algazi, Director General, Mexican Social Security Institute, that will remove from U.S. citizens working for U.S. companies in Mexico the burden of paying social security taxes to both countries. It was estimated that this would result in approximately 3,000 U.S. workers and their employers sharing in tax savings of $140 million over the first five years of the agreement due to the avoidance of double-taxation. It was estimated that the agreement would also result in approximately 50,000 U.S. and Mexican workers receiving benefits after the first five years of the agreement.
Yes.
Isn't some of this, an agreement which grants illegal aliens full SS benefits, including time earned for work prior to coming here illegally, and for time worked here even under fraudulent use of a false or stolen SS Number, part of S2611?