Sooo, dead guy in the news "allegedly" terrorizes a family, so how come the homeowner didn't "allegedly" kill the bad guy?
Is the MSM trying to say (however veiled) that perhaps the dead guy wasn't terrorizing this family and the homeowner may/could be in the wrong? After all, there WAS a gun involved.
It probably depends on the MSMs definition of "terrorize". Do they even have one?