That's some mighty strange logic you follow.
The fact remains that you made a general reference to the entire Spanish Reconquista of 718-1492 in the context of a muslim historian. Yet the moment I responded to false statements in your Reconquista reference, you began insisting that you were only referring by way of that same muslim historian to a single final battle in the last and smallest moorish province almost a century AFTER he died.
I was waiting for the moment when you would try to justify Granada ca. 1492 on the dates of Khaldun, whose name you know in passing but whose own timeline you do not. You met my expectations.
So congratulations. You've just inadvertently affirmed that you don't have even the slightest clue what you've been babbling about.
It's your logic, since you're the one that dismisses the fact that Khaldun wrote during the Reconquista on the grounds that he didn't write during the entire Reconquista.
The fact remains that you made a general reference to the entire Spanish Reconquista of 718-1492 in the context of a muslim historian.
The fact remains that I wrote (#125) "In fact Khaldu[n] was writing as Christian Spaniards were engaged in a bloody Reconquista that they felt was a completely Just War by Augustinian standards."
If you can prove that Khaldun did not write during the Reconquista, which you have stated spanned from 718 to 1492, or that the Christian monarchs who pursued the Reconquista did not believe their war was a Just War, be my guest.
Yet the moment I responded to false statements in your Reconquista reference,
There were none, unless you can prove that Khaldun did not write during the Reconquista, which you have stated spanned from 718 to 1492.
So congratulations. You've just inadvertently affirmed that you don't have even the slightest clue what you've been babbling about.
I was waiting for the moment when you would try to justify Granada ca. 1492 on the dates of Khaldun, whose name you know in passing but whose own timeline you do not. You met my expectations.
the conquest of Granada was the end of the Reconquista. Ergo, it was part of it. Khaldun has nothing to do with it, save for the fact that the Reconquista did not end until well after he did, meaning that he was writing during the Reconquista, which, as you have stated, began in the early 8th century.
So congratulations. You've just inadvertently affirmed that you don't have even the slightest clue what you've been babbling about.
Since you've slipp'd the 'stricting Bonds of Reason, it has become clear that you don't have the slightest clue what I'm saying in plain English