I remember an argument I had with some islamic guy who mentioned a muslim scientist/mathematician's who measured the circumference of the earth to a good accuracy as an example of Islams great achievements. His mouth closed very quickly after I mentioned that a Greek had originated that experiment in its method and result more than a thousand years earlier.
Many if the achievements that the moslems claim, they inherited from the people they had conquered (Persian Egyptians, etc...)
they write sites like this
http://www.arabji.com/ArabEdu/Edu3.htm
The Zero was actually developed long before in India/Babylon/Greece and the Moslems appropriated it (for example)
http://www-groups.dcs.st-and.ac.uk/history/HistTopics/Zero.html
Could not a credible case be made that those "Muslim" achievements in science, literature, the arts, et cetera, can more properly be attributed to the culture of Arabians, rather than to the "Muslim world?" In what ways and to what degree should any aspect of the "philosophy" of Muhammad (that would be "The Prophet") be said to have inspired, motivated or guided the minds of Arab philosophers in any field of intellectual endeavor?
Muslim is not equivalent to Arab, and vice versa.
Here is another interesting mathematical discussion of pi in the Hebrew scriptures.
http://home.teleport.com/~salad/4god/pi.htm