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To: Colofornian

>>O, pray tell. Why stop there. According to Joseph Smith
>>himself, even the KJV doesn't set anything in stone.

>>That's why he "translated" yet another version, w/out
>>even knowing Hebrew or Greek!

Prophets can translate without "Learning the language" that's why it's called a gift of the spirit. I myself experienced the Gift of tongues by learning Chinese on my mission

>>So, why doesn't the LDS church advertise the "IV" (j.smith "inspired" version) on TV?

Because the RLDS church ended up with the Copy right and it's called the JST just for your information.

>>Why do LDS constantly add the disclaimer, "in so far as correctly translated" when >>they have the supposed "correct translation" from J. smith himself?

Because everyone sees though their own eyes, ever talk to witnesses? They all saw something different. There are many translations of the Bible out there. Ever read some of the more modern “Translations“? “Jesus said, hey dude, lets go over to Galilee…” (Throws up quietly into waste can)


345 posted on 11/20/2006 2:35:05 PM PST by DelphiUser ("You can lead a man to knowledge, but you can't make him think")
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To: DelphiUser

LDS do NOT add the disclaimer "as far as it is translated correctly"....it is in the original Wentworthe Letter. Joseph Smith added the proviso.


347 posted on 11/20/2006 2:42:44 PM PST by baal2006
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To: DelphiUser
Prophets can translate without "Learning the language" that's why it's called a gift of the spirit. I myself experienced the Gift of tongues by learning Chinese on my mission

Now you're totally screwing up Scriptural exegesis.

First of all, the apostle Paul, who trumps your prophet, specifically says that "anyone who speaks in a tongue does not speak to men but to God" (1 Cor. 14:2). That is just the opposite of Bible prophesy, which is geared for men and not God.

Secondly, speaking in tongues is for self-edification (1 Cor. 14:4a).

Thirdly, Paul distinguishes between prophesy and speaking in tongues throughout most of 1 Cor. 14, culminating that prophesy trumps speaking in tongues (1 Cor. 14:5) and that tongues is for unbelievers--not believers (1 Cor. 14:22).

Lastly speaking in tongues doesn't do anyone any good, Paul says starkly (see 1 Cor. 14:6, 13, 18-19, 27-28) unless there's an interpreter. Who was Joseph Smith's interpreter?

The problem of the Mormons was the problem of the Corinthians--a problem that forced Paul to ask them: "Did the word of God originate with you? Or are you the only people it has reached?" (1 Cor. 14:36). The problem is that latter-day saints have assumed a less noble position than the Bereans: "Now the Bereans were of more noble character than the Thessalonians, for they received the message with great eagerness and examined the Scriptures every day to see if what Paul said was true." (Acts 17:11) The Bereans judged the latter revelation by the previous revelation, not the other way around.

350 posted on 11/20/2006 3:06:58 PM PST by Colofornian
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To: DelphiUser
Because the RLDS church ended up with the Copy right and it's called the JST just for your information.

So what? Do you think every book Amazon or Books a Million offers is one they published themselves, copyright & all? My understanding is that it's not hard for LDS folks to get a copy of this "version" right? Why doesn't the LDS church scoop up copies Joseph's alleged Bible translation from the RLDS and offer it if it's such a sacred document?

Why would any Joseph Smith-family jumpstarted religion (the RLDS) want to hoard the supposed "Word of God?"

The real reason for not circulating this too widely is that it's embarrassing for Mormons on several fronts:

(1) Many of the changes are extremely minor and are not relevant to significant doctrinal distinctions.

(2) The changes rarely bolster peculiar LDS doctrines.

(3) By leaving many key Bible passages alone, Joe Smith seemed to be giving a "thumbs up" to Biblical doctrines that conflict w/LDS doctrine.

351 posted on 11/20/2006 3:15:36 PM PST by Colofornian
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