Why do the study's authors assume that the cohort of homosexuals and heterosexuals who marry is a representative sample of the entire population of homosexuals or heteresoxuals respectively?
Based on the facts in this study, why would any country want to make homosexual marriages legal, and abandon the "one man/one woman" marriage which might eliminate the mental disorder of homosexuality among offspring? To be left without a mother or father by death is truly a great loss to a child, but for the country to purposely place that child in peril of becoming gay by eliminating the need for two strong parents through manmade laws is unconscionable.
Because they have an agenda?