[Non-Sequitur]

So the Constitutional scholars and the Founders recognized that these two Amendments gave a state the right to secede, but your type seems to blithely ignore them. Like I said before, your Constitution is written in pencil for ease of revision.

Hardly. And nowhere does the Constitution give states the right to trample on the interests of other states or to secede without consent of all the parties involved. As many Constitutional scholars and Founders have said.

[Colt .45]

"Hardly. And nowhere does the Constitution give states the right to trample on the interests of other states or to secede without consent of all the parties involved. As many Constitutional scholars and Founders have said."

Time to raise the BS flag! Where did the secession of the Southern States "trample upon the interests" of the Northern States? Oh, gee I'm sorry, I guess those interests must lie in how much money they could make off of them, and how much malcontention they could stir up among the slaves of that time. As to your contention that they had to go to all states (or Congress)to get a quorum as to whether they could secede or not is horsecrap! Amendment 10 says they didn't! The plural "states" means each state. I guess by your assertions then you believe the Soviet Union was justified in invading both Hungary and Chekoslovakia when they tried to break away. After all they didn't ask permission either.