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To: Carry_Okie

The real question in my mind is: Is it legal for cities to be spending money on political campaigns, albeit in this case, with a middle man to launder the money???



Carry, is this a rhetorical question?

It reminds me of the question... "Is it legal for public employee unions to contribute to political campaigns for the elected officials that will subsequently direct the policies that effect public employee benefits?" (ie: bribing the boss)


7 posted on 10/18/2006 10:43:55 PM PDT by Paloma_55 (I may be a hateful bigot, but I still love you)
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To: Paloma_55
Carry, is this a rhetorical question?

No, I think there's a legal distinction. To deny individual citizens to make campaign contributions is of course illegal. To deny them to hire an agent to do it is also legal. So the case for banning public employee union contributions is weaker than the case for banning public employee unions in the first place.

Cities on the other hand are neither citizens nor agents for hire.

9 posted on 10/18/2006 10:58:42 PM PDT by Carry_Okie (There are people in power who are truly evil.)
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