The original intent and meaning of the CC was to regulate which doesn't mean nor intend to prohibit.
Quite true. Socialists however argue that because Jefferson and Madison used the power to regulate commerce with foreign nations to prohibit trade in 1807 and used the power to regulate commerce with the Indian tribes to prohibit the sale of alcohol in 1802 -; -- that this allows Congress to use a 'power to prohibit' in regulating commerce among the several states.
In 1802 & 1807 Congress used their 'power to regulate' to prohibit trade [legitimately] with adversaries of the United States.
Ever since, Congress has ~ illegitimately ~ attempted to use that power -- by prohibiting trade among the people of the several States. -- In effect they have decreed themselves to have an adversarial power over the people of the States they are bound to serve.
Socialist's also claim that an opinion in the case of Gibbons v Ogden, 1824, justifies that:
"-- The power of a sovereign state over commerce, therefore, amounts to nothing more than a power to limit and restrain it at pleasure. --"
-- Ignoring the fact that nothing in our Constitution delegates a power to "limit and restrain" commerce "at pleasure".
Geez Louise. How confused can these socialist's get?