What this guy did is the most sane response I can think of.
According to post 137, his belief that the child was molested by the neighbor came from his wife.
Now if she said this out of some sick need for attention... or because she hated the neighbor... or because she wanted a convenient path to divorce, and knew that she was not going to get full custody in a fair trial...
Now is he "sane"? And if my conjectures are true, should he slaughter his wife next? Will he be justified yet again? (And what if I convince him that his wife did this, even though it isn't true? Now we're getting into some real good Hitchcock-ian plot lines!!!)
(It also amazes me that FReepers dive into anything the media serves up if the word "molester" is in the story. These 'journalists' are not exactly the most reliable source of factual information or unbiased writing styles. In case we've forgotten, they desperately need to sell advertising space to counter their drooping sales.)