Maybe so. Wiki attributes the term to Plutarch. But he still used it as a pejorative comparison to the glory of Classical Rome. The article goes on to restate my position: that "Most modern historians dismiss the notion that the era was a "Dark Age" by pointing out that this idea was based on ignorance of the period combined with popular stereotypes: many previous authors would simply assume that the era was a dismal time of violence and stagnation and use this assumption to prove itself."
It has nothing to do with the weather or population.
Were you aware that the Welsh annals of the kings (of the Britons) which contain all that marvelous stuff about King Arthur also have an accounting of the initial stages of the Dark Ages ~ right there about 538-540 AD too ~ crops failed, it got cold, trees lost their leaves, people starved, the whole land was laid waste.
And that's the good part.
Bet you thought those guys were telling fairy tales.
Modern historians are, at best, a tertiary source, particularly when it comes to comparing their "opinions" against primary facts, to wit, tree rings.
So, clear your mind of all those "modern historians say" cobwebs and accept the fact that modern science tells us how it happened even if it cannot yet differentiate between the breakup of a comet and an explosion of Krakatoa.